[Haskell-cafe] A question about "monad laws"
valgarv at gmx.net
Fri Mar 14 02:05:13 EDT 2008
Wolfgang Jeltsch-2 wrote:
> No, I think, it’s the Prelude’s fault to define (==) as “floating point
My bad, I meant IEEE (==) when I said it was "our" fault. I concur that the
Prelude is at fault for using the (==) symbol for FP equality. Even if you
demand from (==) to be an equivalence, you're giving a pure functional type
to an impure operation (e.g because of SNaNs)
My point was that since Haskell has a known and established mechanism for
delimiting impurity, it seems as a shame not to use it to add some rigour to
myth-ridden, poorly understood floating point world. We need good FP for FP
Ariel J. Birnbaum
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