[Haskell-cafe] Re: Overloading functions based on arguments?
ketil at malde.org
Sat Feb 14 02:45:00 EST 2009
"John A. De Goes" <john at n-brain.net> writes:
> I'm referring to a rather conservative proposal wherein if there is
> one and exactly one definition that allows an expression to type, then
> name overloading in the same scope is permitted.
Perhaps this was discussed in the context of records and field
If I haven't seen further, it is by standing in the footprints of giants
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