[Haskell-cafe] Is (==) commutative?
c.sternagel at gmail.com
Wed Jul 25 05:26:46 CEST 2012
> It's a classically valid inference, so you're "safe" in that respect,
> and it is true that evaluating x == y requires traversing x and y, so
> that if x or y "are" bottom, (x == y) and (y == x) will both be bottom.
Well, (x == y) could result in bottom, even if neither x nor y are
bottom, e.g., [undefined] == [undefined]. -cheers chris
More information about the Haskell-Cafe