[nhc-users] apply1 and $
Malcolm.Wallace at cs.york.ac.uk
Wed Dec 15 08:50:59 EST 2004
Arunkumar S Jadhav <arunk at it.iitb.ac.in> writes:
> Byte codes for functions "apply1" and "$" are exactly same
> (correct me if I'm am wrong).
Yes, the bytecode is the same. In fact the source code for both is
identical too, apart from the name.
> Just "apply1" is used while building
> a graph and "$" is used (also while building a graph) while
> interpreting the byte code "APPLY n". Can anyone tell why is this
> distinction being made ? Because as I see it, apply1 could've been
> used in place of "$" and the difference wold've been nothing.
There is no good reason to have two different names. It was probably
a historical accident.
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